I think that the inclusion of prostitutes in the New Testament was meant to imply that all 'sinners' were welcome in the house of God. Jesus was also well known to include the poor, handicapped, and so, one should naturally say, he included 'all' people in his house; including homosexuals.
So here's the dates...
At the end of the 6th century, Pope Gregory fused the figures of Mary Magdalene, Mary of Bethany, and the unnamed sinner in Luke. This was the moment at which Margy Magdalene was transformed into a prostitute, largely because women's sins were inevitably construed as sexual sins.
In 1969, in the liturgical equivalent of fine print, the Catholic Church officially separated Luke's sinful woman, Mary of Bethany and Mary Magdalene as part of the general revision of its missal...Mary of Bethamy was basically clarified to be the prostitute, and conversely, Mary Magdalene was clarified as not being a prostitute.
So here's the dates...
At the end of the 6th century, Pope Gregory fused the figures of Mary Magdalene, Mary of Bethany, and the unnamed sinner in Luke. This was the moment at which Margy Magdalene was transformed into a prostitute, largely because women's sins were inevitably construed as sexual sins.
In 1969, in the liturgical equivalent of fine print, the Catholic Church officially separated Luke's sinful woman, Mary of Bethany and Mary Magdalene as part of the general revision of its missal...Mary of Bethamy was basically clarified to be the prostitute, and conversely, Mary Magdalene was clarified as not being a prostitute.
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